Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen , questions et réponses: 七月 2013

2013年7月31日星期三

Meilleur AccessData A30-327 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: A30-327

Nom d'Examen: AccessData (AccessData Certified Examiner)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CSTE

Nom d'Examen: Software Certifications (CSTE Certified Software Test Engineer (CSTE))

Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between
the
impact of risks and the cost of protective measures.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Achieving quality requires:
A. Exceeding the customer's expectations
B. Focusing on the customer
C. Meeting all the definitions of quality
D. All the above
E. Understanding the customer's expectations
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?
A. QA is part of a complete testing process
B. Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing
C. Testing is part of a complete QA process
D. When Testing is over it becomes QA
Answer: C

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NO.4 A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and code
inspections than by testing
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The essence of a quality internal product is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Improving internal processes
C. Delivering the right product
Answer: A

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8. The purpose of software testing is to____________.
A. Detect the existence of defects
B. Demonstrate that the application works properly
C. Validate the logical design
Answer: A

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9. White Box testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is not known.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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10. Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IQ0-100

Nom d'Examen: AIIM (Certified Information Professional Examination)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)
A. Descriptive
B. Foundational
C. Structural
D. Core
E. Administrative
F. Elementary
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 A social media team should have representatives from which of the following areas? (Choose 3)
A. Executive Management
B. Information Technology
C. Financial Management
D. Records Management
E. Administrative Services
F. Communications
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 An organization has just released a new. completely redesigned website. The website bounce rate has
increased by 20 percent over the previous site's. The website manager suspects the issue results from
confusion caused by the new website's structure, layout and/or visual cues. The best recommendation is
to start investigating by doing
A. A/B testing.
B. Multivariate testing.
C. Usability testing,
D. Conversion testing.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The purpose of conducting a knowledge audit is to (Choose 2)
A. Identify knowledge assets, resources, and locations,
B. Resolve organizational and cultural knowledge issues,
C. Develop enhanced knowledge management solutions,
D. Determine the organization's knowledge needs.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Vital records are defined as records that are fundamental to the functioning of an organization and are
necessary to continue operations during
A. Normal circumstances.
B. An external audit.
C. Extraordinary conditions.
D. Litigation.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the most accurate description of tiered storage?
A. The setup of a file structure that determines where information is placed to provide added security and
long-term storage
B. The export of inactive or fixed-content information to paper or media for long-term storage
C. Location of information based on record type, active/inactive content and the type of media required for
storage
D. The assignment of data based on levels of protection, performance requirements, and frequency of
use
Answer: D

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NO.7 Corporate information governance is most likely to be successful when
A. Departments develop and manage their own governance.
B. Information governance is developed prior to solution deployments.
C. IT directs, manages, and oversees governance.
D. Information governance is developed after solution deployments.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which of the following is a user's navigation through an information space guided and structured by
the activities of others within that space?
A. Site map navigation
B. Social navigation
C. Link-based navigation
D. Breadcrumb navigation
Answer: B

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NO.9 A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known
as
A. Information Sharing
B. Knowledge Management
C. Information Transference
D. Knowledge Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.10 What type of information should be collected when conducting a data inventory? (Choose 2)
A. Data location
B. Date of the next inventory
C. Owner of the data
D. Data policies
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 A statement of work (SOW) for an information management project is intended to
A. Define the scope of the project,
B. Provide project reporting.
C. Identify return on investment.
D. Identify what is to be delivered.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information
Management (IM) solution?
A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings
B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue
C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return
D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return
Answer: D

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NO.13 A common characteristic of folksonomies is that they
A. Are somewhat slow to develop because of the initial planning required.
B. Arise in hierarchical environments where administrators can oversee them.
C. Feature strong bibliographic control provided by their formal structure.
D. Provide an opportunity for collaborative classification by multiple users.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the primary purpose of a legal hold?
A. To distribute notification of the legal obligation to prevent destruction or modification of any information
relevant to a lawsuit
B. To collect and export for review any information that pertains to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
C. To collect information based on keyword searches defined by legal counsel in the event of a
preservation notice
D. To prevent the modification or destruction of documents and electronically-stored information (ESI)
relevant to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
Answer: D

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NO.15 An organization seeks to maintain its information in an unalterable state. Which of these technologies is
best suited to meet this requirement?
A. Public key infrastructure
B. Write once read many
C. Private key infrastructure
D. Redacting annotation
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CSSBB

Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Six Sigma Black Belt Certification - CSSBB)

Questions et réponses: 227 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CQE

Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Quality Engineer Exam)

Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CQA

Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Quality Auditor Exam)

Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 Causes in a cause and effect diagram often include management, measurement systems, mother
nature and the four standard causes:
A. man, material, methods, machines
B. man, manufacturing, methods, material
C. marketing, methods, material, machines
D. man, material, millennium, machines
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 The quality leader responsible for the term Total Quality Management (TQM):
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George ¯ s i n t e r na l cus t o m e r. W h i ch s t a t e m en t i s tr ue?
A. John is employed by Black, Inc.
B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.
C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from black, Inc.
D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with Black, Inc.
E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations ° e li m i na t e nu m e ri ca l quo t as
for the work force and numerical goals for management. ± :
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.5 SWOT is an acronym for:
A. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
B. statistics without tables
C. sensory Weibull ordinal tools
D. success wields optimal teams
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 Perform a risk analysis to determine the expected profit or (loss) from a project which has four possible
disjoint outcomes: Outcome A shows a profit of $340,000 and has a probability of 0.25 Outcome B shows
a profit of $120,000 and has a probability of 0.40 Outcome C shows a loss of $40,000 and has a
probability of 0.10 Outcome D shows a profit of $100,000 and has a probability of 0.25 .?
A. $130,000
B. $520,000
C. $154,000
D. ($168,000)
E. none of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: E

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NO.8 Customer requirement #3 has a ______________ relationship with technical feature #3.
A. strong
B. moderate
C. weak
Answer: B

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NO.9 A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Ohno
E. Taguchi
F. all of the above
G. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.10 In a series of linked processes and associated feedback loops the product or service flows ________
and the information flows ________.
A. rapidly, slower
B. downstream, upstream
C. evenly, digitally
D. sooner, later
E. to the customer, from the supplier
F. none of the above
Answer: B

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NO.11 The support for an important quality initiative was lacking in congress until Reagan ¯ s Seretary of
Commerce was killed in a horseback riding accident in 1987. That initiative was:
A. assigning National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) quality oversight duties
B. °consensus o f t he H ous ¡± pr o cl am a t i o n fo r De m i g¡¯ s 14 po i n t s C . nging National Bureau of
Standards to NIST.
D. authorizing the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to join with the International Standards
Organization (ISO) to promulgate standards.
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.12 A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to collect baseline
data. It will do this by:
A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders
B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization
C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs
D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization
Answer: C

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NO.13 Customer segmentation refers to:
A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them
D. eliminating or °cu tti ng o f ¡± cu st om ers w i th po o r cr e d it histor
Answer: B

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NO.14 This is an example of part of a:
A. QFD Matrix
B. Activity Network Diagram
C. Interrelationship Diagram
D. Affinity Diagram
Answer: A

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NO.15 The word °cha m p i o ¡± in t h e co nt e x t o f S ix Si gm a proj e cts refers to
A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively
C. the individual who has outpaced all others in six sigma knowledge
D. none of the above
Answer: D

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Guide de formation plus récente de SOA Certified Professional S90-04A S90-03A S90-02A S90-01A

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Code d'Examen: S90-04A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-03A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-02A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Concepts)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-01A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)

Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.2 The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or contract of a
service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation and
SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms and
practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical (shortterm)
requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service-orientation is
required.
Answer: A,B,C

certification SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.4 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of applying the
Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
Answer: D

certification SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.6 When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to __________________ the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to remain
__________________ from the service logic. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   certification S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.8 As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service compositions to
become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   S90-03A examen   S90-03A

NO.10 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-03A examen   S90-03A examen

NO.11 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.13 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   certification S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.14 Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the Service
Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   S90-03A   S90-03A

NO.15 The decoupling of a service contract from the service's underlying implementation results in a(n)
__________________ in the service's level of abstraction because __________________ service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly couple to the
underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-03A   S90-03A

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Code d'Examen: adwords-display

Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Display Exam Practice Test)

Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.2 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.4 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

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NO.6 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

Google   certification adwords-display   adwords-display examen

NO.8 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.9 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.10 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.11 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

Google examen   adwords-display   adwords-display examen

NO.14 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.17 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

Google   adwords-display examen   certification adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.18 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.20 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

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NO.1 You want to export all the images in a PDF document to separate JPEG files. Which command should
you choose?
A.File > Save As > JPEG
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Image > JPEG
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to examine and make corrections to your PDF document for common output problems,
compatibility issues, and conformance to standards. Which should you choose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.3 You want to create a separate archive of all the images in your PDF document. Which command
should you choose?
A.Document > Extract Pages
B.File > Export > Image > JPEG
C.Tools > Advanced Editing > TouchUp Object Tool
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

Adobe examen   certification 9A0-063   certification 9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.4 Which information can you preview by Selecting Preview Separations from the Output Preview dialog
box?
A.Resolution
B.Halftone screens
C.Emulsion options
D.One or more process plates
Answer: D

Adobe   certification 9A0-063   9A0-063   certification 9A0-063

NO.5 You are creating a PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. You want to automatically include
the metadata from the Word document in the PDF document. Which option in the Acrobat PDFMaker
dialog box should you select?
A.Add Links to Adobe PDF
B.Add Bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C.Convert Document Information
D.Prompt for Adobe PDF file name
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-063   certification 9A0-063

NO.6 You want to allow users to add a digital signature to your document by using Adobe Reader 8. Which
command should you choose?
A.Advanced > Security Settings
B.Advanced > Sign & Certify > Place Signature
C.Advanced > Enable Usage Rights in Adobe Reader
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Set Document Actions
Answer: C

Adobe   certification 9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.7 Which statement about toolbars is true?
A.You can hide tools on a toolbar
B.You can add any tool to any toolbar
C.You can combine two toolbars together
D.You can only dock default toolbars in the interface above the document window
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does right-clicking (Windows) or control-clicking (Mac OS) on a toolbar allow you to do?
A.Undock and redock the toolbar
B.Add or delete items from a toolbar
C.Hide or show button labels on the toolbar
D.Create or delete new tools with JavaScript
Answer: B

certification Adobe   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063 examen

NO.9 You want to export your PDF document to a file format that will retain the layout and allow you to edit
the text. Which format should you choose?
A.TIFF
B.JPEG
C.XML 1.0
D.Word Document
Answer: D

certification Adobe   9A0-063   9A0-063   certification 9A0-063

NO.10 You have saved a PDF document by using the Enable Usage Rights command Which two features
are available when the file is opened in Adobe Reader? (Choose two.)
A.Saving form data
B.Applying a password to a PDF document
C.Using commenting and drawing mark-up tools
D.Applying restrictions for printing and copying the PDF document
E.Saving the PDF document as a Microsoft Word document, retaining the layout, fonts, formatting, and
tables
Answer: AC

Adobe examen   certification 9A0-063   9A0-063 examen   certification 9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.11 Which feature is enabled for a Participant in an Adobe Acrobat Connect session?
A.Polling pods
B.The Note pod
C.Screen Sharing
D.The Camera pod
Answer: D

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NO.12 You want to collaboratively edit a PowerPoint presentation. Which method should you use?
A.Conduct an e-mail-based review
B.Send the PowerPoint slides in a PDF Package
C.Attach the PowerPoint slides to a Shared Review
D.Collaborate via the Web with Adobe Acrobat Connect
Answer: D

Adobe examen   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.13 Which Print Production tool allows you to convert all of the spot colors in a document to process colors?
A.Ink Manager
B.Trap Presets
C.PDF Optimizer
D.Output Preview
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are using the Review Tracker to send out an email review. You have sent out the initial email.
Which two Review Tracker features are available? (Choose two.)
A.Add Reviewers
B.Import Comments
C.Migrate Comments
D.Email All Reviewers
E.Summarize Comments
Answer: AD

Adobe   9A0-063 examen   9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.15 Which statement about security envelopes is true?
A.Only PDF files can be protected with a security envelope
B.Security envelopes are only compatible with Acrobat 8 and Reader 8
C.They contain the protected file as an attachment to the envelope PDF
D.You can not use a policy server or Adobe Document Center policy with them
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-063 examen   9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.16 You want to edit the text of a PDF document. Which command should you choose to convert the PDF
document into a document that you can edit?
A.File > Export > XML 1.0
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Word Document
D.File > Save As and choose PostScript from the format list
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063 examen

NO.17 What does Total Ink Coverage preview display?
A.Spot colors that overlap process color areas
B.The total percentage of a page covered by any ink
C.The percentage of a process-color ink in a solid-color object
D.Areas that exceed the maximum amount of ink coverage allowed by a printer
Answer: D

certification Adobe   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063   9A0-063

NO.18 Which tool on the Print Production toolbar can be accessed from the Output Preview dialog box?
A.Ink Manager
B.Crop Pages
C.Trap Presets
D.Add Printer Marks
Answer: A

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NO.19 You want to use the Attachments panel to add an attachment to a PDF document. Which icon displays
the Add Attachment dialog box?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You want to use the Output Preview dialog box to show the areas of your document that have a total
ink coverage of 280% or higher. Which should you choose?
A.Ink Manager
B.Simulate Black Ink
C.Total Area Coverage
D.Simulate Paper Color
Answer: C

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IFPUG AFE ABV CRCM I40-420 140-420

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Code d'Examen: AFE

Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (Accredited Financial Examiner (AFE))

Questions et réponses: 286 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ABV

Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (Accredited in Business Valuation (ABV))

Questions et réponses: 344 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CRCM

Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))

Questions et réponses: 463 Q&As

Code d'Examen: I40-420

Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )

Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 140-420

Nom d'Examen: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )

Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

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NO.1 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.3 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

IFPUG   ABV   ABV
5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

IFPUG   ABV   ABV   ABV   ABV

NO.4 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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SAP C-TB1200-88 C-BOSUP-90 C-BOE-30, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C-TB1200-88

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-BOSUP-90

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-BOE-30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

SAP   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30

NO.3 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after
it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

SAP examen   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30 examen   C-BOE-30

NO.5 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter
(WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.9 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

SAP   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30 examen

NO.11 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability
and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space
required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of
the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.16 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You
want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server
service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you
perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

SAP examen   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30

NO.17 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle
database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to
enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the
report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes
scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

SAP examen   certification C-BOE-30   C-BOE-30 examen   C-BOE-30

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