Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen , questions et réponses: Juniper

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2014年8月11日星期一

Le dernier examen Juniper JN0-102 JN0-690 JN0-696 gratuit Télécharger

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Code d'Examen: JN0-102
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos))
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-690
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Junos Troubleshooting)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-696
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 36 Q&As

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NO.1 Which J-Web tab do you use to add licenses to the device?
A. "Configure"
B. "Troubleshoot"
C. "Monitor"
D. "Maintain"
Answer: D

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NO.2 A network administrator wants to verify the active alarms on interface so-0/ 0/ 0.0.
Which command displays this information?
A. show interfaces alarms
B. show interfaces terse
C. show alarms extensive
D. show interfaces extensive
Answer: D

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NO.3 A packet is evaluated against three user-defined terms within a firewall filter and no match is
found.
What correctly describes the action the firewall filter will take for this packet?
A. The filter will permit the packet and take no additional action.
B. The filter will reject the packet and send an ICMP message back to the sender.
C. The filter will discard the packet and take no additional action.
D. The filter will permit the packet and write a log entry to the firewall log.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command is used to display all output at once?
A. show interfaces | all
B. show interfaces | no-more
C. show interfaces | hold
D. show interfaces | display-all
Answer: B

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NO.5 What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229
Answer: D

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NO.6 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A. 11001111
B. 11101011
C. 11010111
D. 11010101
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used as a tiebreaker when the same prefix is available through multiple protocols.
B. It is used to determine the preferred path to a given destination.
C. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal-cost paths.
D. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command is used to enable access to J-Web using HTTPS?
A. set system remote-access profile https
B. set services remote-access profile j-web-https
C. set system services web-management https
D. set services web-management j-web-https
Answer: C

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2014年6月22日星期日

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Code d'Examen: JN0-332
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 425 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-370
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF))
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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Certification Juniper de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen JN0-201 JN0-130, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JN0-201
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-130
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.2 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.4 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.5 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.6 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.7 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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2014年4月19日星期六

Le plus récent matériel de formation Juniper JN0-321

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Code d'Examen: JN0-321
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (DX, Associate(JNCIA-DX))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are correct using nitro.apprule on any web application? (Choosethree.)
A. Nitro.apprule provides advance http security on HTTPS applications.
B. Nitro.apprule provides caching on HTTP and HTTPS applications.
C. Nitro.apprule provides transaction guarantee on HTTP application.
D. Nitro.apprule improves client response time on HTTP applications.
E. Nitro.apprule provides advanced authentication on HTTPS applications.
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 In which section of the WebUI does the administrator create and apply AppRules?
A. SLB
B. Cluster
C. Forwarder
D. Redirector
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two functions require the use of the CLI? (Choose two.)
A. running a tcpdump
B. adding a VLAN
C. adding a cluster
D. adding a target server
Answer: AB

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NO.4 In the WebUI, which method will determine if a Cluster target host is available?
A. Click Statistics > Cluster Groups
B. Click Dashboard > Cluster group name
C. Click Services > Cluster Groups
D. Click Log > Audit
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which protocols are used to export and import configurations?
A. TFTP or SCP
B. TFTP or SMTP
C. FTP or SCP
D. FTP or TFTP
Answer: A

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NO.6 What do you need to upgrade the DXOS?
A. an upgrade .tar file placed on your SCP server
B. an upgrade CD provided by your Juniper Networks representative
C. an upgrade .pac file placed on your TFTP or SCP server
D. an upgrade .gz file placed on your FTP server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your administrator wants to centralize logs from the DX appliance and Cluster. Whichtwo protocols
areavailable to export those logs? (Choose two.)
A. SMTP
B. syslog
C. SCP
D. TFTP
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which steps are required to use the Juniper DXs ActiveN functionality?
A. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
B. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
C. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
D. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two are initial configuration steps using the console? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HTTPS for WebUI access.
B. Agree to the license.
C. Configure fullyqualified domain name.
D. Configure console port parameters.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which HTTP return code should be verified when configuring the cache?
A. 302
B. 200
C. 304
D. 501
Answer: B

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NO.11 An enterprise has an internal web application that needs stickiness managed by aCluster. All
employeesaccess the application through a proxy. What is the correct sticky load balancing policy?
A. url persistency
B. cookie persistency
C. urlhash
D. default persistency
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which CLI command is used for analysis and troubleshooting of real time trafficcapture?
A. tcpdump
B. show server stats
C. tsdump
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two benefits does the Juniper DX provide? (Choose two.)
A. It offloads TCP connections from servers.
B. It spools email messages.
C. It offloads SSL from servers.
D. It compresses images.
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which AppRule type is used to configure 3G caching?
A. PTH
B. RS
C. RTH
D. PTC
Answer: A

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NO.15 An enterprise uses a Webtiered application that provides NTLM enduserauthentication.What is the
required Cluster option?
A. DSR
B. Connect Method
C. Connection Binding
D. Sticky Load Balancing
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which system elements are exported when using the system snapshot feature?
A. tsdump, tcpdump, current debug and memory states
B. current memory states
C. system process data, system logs, system debug statistics and system passkeys
D. system software, users, configuration, licenses, app rules, SSL certificates and keys
Answer: D

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NO.17 When running SSL on a nonweb application, where are the secure connections made?
A. between the client and the DX appliance and between the DX appliance and the target servers
B. directly between the client and the target server(s)
C. between the client and the DX appliance
D. between the DX appliance and the target server(s)
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement is true about "sticky" load balancing for Clusters?
A. The "clientip" setting does not apply to clusters, it only pertains to a Forwarder.
B. When set to "clientip" it uses the client's IP address to bind the client to a particular target server.
C. When set to "clientip" it ensures that all subsequent requests are directed to the same client that made
the initial request.
D. When set to "clientip" it allows a DX sticky cookie to be sent to and stored by the client based on the IP
address.
Answer: B

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NO.19 In the Juniper DX Unified Failover configuration, the VMAC is active on whichdevice(s)?
A. The Standby DX(s)
B. The Master DX and the Active Server(s)
C. The Master DX
D. All DXs in the Unified Failover group
Answer: C

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NO.20 A health care organization has a Juniper DX placed in front of a web server. Theycurrently have
listensideSSL enabled to encrypt traffic from the client to the DX appliance. Due to privacyconcerns, they
havedecided to enable SSL from the client to the server for endtoend SSL. Which twosteps are required
toenable endtoend encryption? (Choose two).
A. Disable clientside SSL on the DX and enable Unified SSL.
B. Enable targetside SSL on the DX.
C. Configure a Redirector on the DX to redirect browsers to the HTTPS port.
D. Enable SSL on the web server.
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: JN0-303
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.m(jncis-m))
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 When comparing CPE and provider-provisioned VPNs (PPVPN), which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. CPE VPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, PPVPN does not.
B. PPVPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, CPE VPN's does not.
C. CPE VPN's scale better than PPVPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
D. PPVPN's scale better than CPE VPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 What is the administrative scoping address range associated with global scope?
A. 224.0.0.0/24
B. 239.128.0.0/10
C. 239.192.0.0/14
D. 224.0.1.0?38.255.255.255
Answer: D

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NO.3 In JUNOS software, what is required to redistribute RIP routes into OSPF?
A. Apply an export policy in RIP.
B. Apply an import policy in RIP.
C. Apply an export policy in OSPF.
D. Apply an import policy in OSPF.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?
A. IGP
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. MPLS
Answer: C

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NO.5 In JUNOS software, which type of VPN supports IPX and Appletalk?
A. Martini based VPN's
B. 2547bis based VPN's
C. Sham link based VPN's
D. Virtual Router based VPN's
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three RP election mechanisms are available in a PIM-SM domain? (Choose three.)
A. Static
B. Auto-RP
C. Dynamic-RP
D. Bootstrap router
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 In what PIM topology would you use MSDP within a single domain?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast RP
C. Bootstrap router
D. PIM sparse mode
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two commands that can be used to configure MBGP for multicast? (choose two)
A. Under the BGP group, configure family inet any
B. Use the set protocol MBGP command to enable MBGP
C. Under the BGP group, configure family inet multicast
D. Use the set rib-group command to copy the multicast routes into inet.1
Answer: AC

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NO.9 PE1 has connections to VPN sites that are served by three remote PE routers. How many LSP's must
be established to support 2547bis?
A. an LSP for each local CE device
B. an LSP for each remote PE device
C. an LSP for each remote CE device
D. an LSP for each CE facing interface
Answer: B

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NO.10 An OSPF non-backbone area allows external routes to be flooded within the area. These external
routes are
propagated into other areas. However, external routes from other areas are not allowed to enter this area.
Which type of
OSPF area does this describe?
A. stub area
B. transit area
C. border area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which JUNOS software operational-mode command displays the status of a Draft-Martini VPN?
A. show ldp neighbor
B. show martini connections
C. show l2circuit connections
D. show l2vpn connections
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two mechanisms control route distribution between PE routers in a 2547bis VPN? (Choose
two.)
A. Site ID
B. Policies
C. Circuit ID
D. Extended communities
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What are three examples of a provider-provisioned VPN supported by JUNOS software? (Choose
three.)
A. L2F
B. PPTP
C. Circuit cross-connect
D. Draft-Martini-based VPNs
E. Draft-Kompella-based VPNs
Answer: CDE

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NO.14 Which two multicast groups support Auto-RP mapping and discovery? (Choose two.)
A. 224.0.0.39
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.40
D. 224.0.1.40
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which represents a correct PE-PE BGP configuration for an L3 VPN?
A. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
B. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
any;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1; }
C. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet-vpn {
unicast;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
D. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
13-vpn;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
Answer: C

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NO.16 In JUNOS software, which three are valid encapsulation types for CCC? (Choose three.)
A. hdlc-ccc
B. atm-cell-ccc
C. cisco-hdlc-ccc
D. ethernet-vlan-ccc
E. ethernet-snap-ccc
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 What prevents routing loops when MSDP is configured across multiple domains?
A. PIM-SM
B. Scoping
C. Auto-RP
D. MBGP
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two steps are required for a Kompella Layer 2 VPN? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a site ID for each CE
B. Configure a VPN label for each VPN
C. Configure a MP-BGP session to each PE
D. Configure an Extended LDP Session to each PE
Answer: AC

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NO.19 Which multicast mode does Auto-RP require?
A. Link-mode
B. Dense mode
C. Sparse mode D. Sparse-dense mode
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which LSA is the Type 10?
A. Router LSA
B. Opaque LSA
C. AS attributes LSA
D. ASBR summary LSA
E. Network summary LSA
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JN0-522
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be useful for troubleshooting a policy deny?
A.get flow debug
B.debug flow basic
C.exec flow analysis
D.debug session basic
Answer:B

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NO.3 Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI
management access to the SSG 5?
A.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access
192.168.1.1.
B.Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and
access 192.168.1.1.
C.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet, to the highest numbered interface and open a
browser and access 192.168.1.1.
D.Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a
browser to the interface address.
Answer:C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which ScreenOS CLI command is required to enable a policy during specified times, days, or dates?
A.set time
B.set clock
C.set calendar
D.set scheduler
Answer:D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct command to configure a default route on the
SSG 20?
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 vrouter untrust
B.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 next-hop 143.45.56.254
D.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface 143.45.56.1 gate 143.45.56.254
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which command can you use to view the log of IKE negotiations and results?
A.get event type 536
B.get ike cookie
C.get sa active
D.debug ike basic
Answer:A

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NO.8 You enter the following command: set int e0/8 mip 1.1.8.32 host 10.1.10.32 netmask 255.255.255.255
How many MIP address translations have you just configured?
A.1
B.8
C.128
D.256
Answer:A

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct address book entry for host C?
A.set address C 1.1.70.250/32
B.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250
C.set address Partner 1.1.70.250/32
D.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250/32
Answer:D

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NO.10 What needs to be configured in Phase 2 of a route-based VPN, that does not need to be configured in a
policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.tunnel-binding
C.transport mode
D.custom proposals
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days,
and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Answer:C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP. In the exhibit,
what is true about the configuration of this feature?
A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical
interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same
ports in the Corporate zone.
Answer:A

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NO.13 Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no
cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Answer:A B

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NO.14 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to view traffic logs?
A.get traffic
B.get log policy
C.get policy log
D.get log traffic
Answer:D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated
the output shown? (Choose two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer:B C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, if host A initiates a Web browsing session with host D, and the
E0/1 interface of the SSG 20 is in NAT mode, what will be the source address of the packet arriving at
host D?
A.10.1.1.1
B.10.1.10.5
C.143.45.56.1
D.143.45.56.254
Answer:C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with
host C? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A's subnet already exists.)
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
B.set route 1.1.70.0 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
C.configure route 1.1.70.0/24 gateway 177.11.56.254 int e0/3
D.set route 1.1.70.0/24 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which statement is correct about tunnel interfaces?
A.They can have overlapping IP addresses.
B.They need to be configured in the zone where the protected resources reside.
C.They can be unnumbered and used in policy-based translations if the interface is in route mode.
D.They can be unnumbered from any interface residing on the same virtual router as the protected
resources.
Answer:D

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NO.19 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer:A B

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NO.20 You want to minimize the number of IP addresses, subnets, and policies in use. How should you
configure your tunnel interface?
A.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 32 bit subnet mask.
B.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 30 bit subnet mask.
C.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered and place the interface in the same zone as the
designated interface.
D.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered, but place the tunnel interface in a different zone than the
designated interface.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-632
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional, Security (JNCIP-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 169 Q&As

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NO.1 Which zone is system-defined?
A. security
B. functional
C. junos-global
D. management
Answer: C

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NO.2 Regarding content filtering, what are two pattern lists that can be configured in the Junos OS? (Choose
two.)
A. protocol list
B. MIME
C. block list
D. extension
Answer: BD

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NO.3 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood. Which
configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
}
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
}
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of Web filtering by default builds a cache of server actions associated with each URL it has
checked?
A. Websense Redirect Web filtering
B. integrated Web filtering
C. local Web filtering
D. enhanced Web filtering
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command do you use to display the status of an antivirus database update?
A. show security utm anti-virus status
B. show security anti-virus database status
C. show security utm anti-virus database
D. show security utm anti-virus update
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPsec VPN secured by AH.?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer: ACE

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NO.7 Which security or functional zone name has special significance to the Junos OS?
A. self
B. trust
C. untrust
D. junos-global
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describes an ALG?
A. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to deny
the traffic.
B. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to permit the traffic to pass.
C. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to deny the traffic.
D. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to permit
the traffic to pass.
Answer:

NO.9 Which configuration keyword ensures that all in-progress sessions are re-evaluated upon committing a
security policy change?
A. policy-rematch
B. policy-evaluate
C. rematch-policy
D. evaluate-policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two UTM features require a license to be activated? (Choose two.)
A. antispam
B. antivirus (full AV)
C. content filtering
D. Web-filtering redirect
Answer: AB

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632

NO.11 Which two statements are true about hierarchical architecture? (Choose two.)
A. You can assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
B. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
C. You can assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
D. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Which two statements in a source NAT configuration are true regarding addresses, rule-sets, or rules
that overlap? (Choose two.)
A. Addresses used for NAT pools should never overlap.
B. If more than one rule-set matches traffic, the rule-set with the most specific context takes precedence.
C. If traffic matches two rules within the same rule-set, both rules listed in the configuration are applied.
D. Dynamic source NAT rules take precedence over static source NAT rules.
Answer: AB

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NO.13 A user wants to establish an HTTP session to a server behind an SRX device but is being pointed to
Web page on the SRX device for additional authentication.Which type of user authentication is
configured?
A. pass-through with Web redirect
B. WebAuth with HTTP redirect
C. WebAuth
D. pass-through
Answer: A

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NO.14 You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen

NO.15 Which statement contains the correct parameters for a route-based IPsec VPN?
A. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
B. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
C. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
D. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two statements regarding external authentication servers for firewall user authentication are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to three external authentication server types can be used simultaneously.
B. Only one external authentication server type can be used simultaneously.
C. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server is unreachable, authentication is bypassed.
D. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server rejects the authentication request, authentication is rejected
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which two statements regarding symmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which UTM feature requires a license to function?
A. integrated Web filtering
B. local Web filtering
C. redirect Web filtering
D. content filtering
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: BCE

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NO.20 A network administrator has configured source NAT, translating to an address that is on a locally
connected subnet. The administrator sees the translation working, but traffic does not appear to come
back.What is causing the problem?
A. The host needs to open the telnet port.
B. The host needs a route for the translated address.
C. The administrator must use a proxy-arp policy for the translated address.
D. The administrator must use a security policy, which will allow communication between the zones.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-533
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JN0-102
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos))
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

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NO.1 Which J-Web tab do you use to add licenses to the device?
A. "Configure"
B. "Troubleshoot"
C. "Monitor"
D. "Maintain"
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements accurately describe a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast domains require that the participating devices connect to common switches or hubs.
B. Broadcast domains consist of devices reachable by frames addressed to the Layer 2 broadcast
address.
C. Broadcast domains require a gateway device such as a router.
D. Broadcast domains consist of devices that reside on the same VLAN.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You have been allocated a 192.168.100.0/ 22 network.
How many usable hosts are available?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024
Answer: C

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NO.4 A network administrator wants to verify the active alarms on interface so-0/ 0/ 0.0.
Which command displays this information?
A. show interfaces alarms
B. show interfaces terse
C. show alarms extensive
D. show interfaces extensive
Answer: D

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NO.5 A packet is evaluated against three user-defined terms within a firewall filter and no match is
found.
What correctly describes the action the firewall filter will take for this packet?
A. The filter will permit the packet and take no additional action.
B. The filter will reject the packet and send an ICMP message back to the sender.
C. The filter will discard the packet and take no additional action.
D. The filter will permit the packet and write a log entry to the firewall log.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which command is used to display all output at once?
A. show interfaces | all
B. show interfaces | no-more
C. show interfaces | hold
D. show interfaces | display-all
Answer: B

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NO.7 What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command is used to enable access to J-Web using HTTPS?
A. set system remote-access profile https
B. set services remote-access profile j-web-https
C. set system services web-management https
D. set services web-management j-web-https
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used as a tiebreaker when the same prefix is available through multiple protocols.
B. It is used to determine the preferred path to a given destination.
C. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal-cost paths.
D. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A. 11001111
B. 11101011
C. 11010111
D. 11010101
Answer: A

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2014年2月16日星期日

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Code d'Examen: JN0-562
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A. SSL is supported in all Web browsers.
B. SSL usually requires no client-side configuration.
C. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure than that of an
IPSec client.
D. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather than the
application layer.
Answer: AB

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NO.2 What does a sign-in policy map users to when browsing a specified URL?
A. A list of possible user roles.
B. Specific resources as stated in resource policies.
C. The URL presents one or more authentication realms to the user for authentication.
D. The login is passed to an authentication server for verification, and an authorization server for user
attribute information.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-562 examen   JN0-562

NO.3 Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose
two.)
A. Citrix ICA
B. Tera Term
C. SecureCRT
D. Windows Terminal Service
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 You create a set of role mapping rules. You select "Merge settings for all assigned roles." The second
role mapping rule has the "Stop processing rules when this rule matches" option selected. A user logs in
that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the
configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging
follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only
merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE's built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just
matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined
by the second role.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are
available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

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NO.7 You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on
the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication
information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from
different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement accurately describes Resource Profiles?
A. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource Profiles are where ACLs are setup for resources.
C. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and their discriptions.
D. Resource Profiles are where the resource, role, and ACL are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the minimum information that must be configured by an administrator to create a resource
policy? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. username
C. policy name
D. session timeout
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. secure meeting
B. network connect
C. terminal services
D. Web applications
Answer: CD

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NO.15 What are two reasons for using Network Connect? (Choose two.)
A. When the ability to disable split tunneling is required.
B. When the client will need to redirect traffic based on process name.
C. When the client will use applications with server-initiated connections.
D. When the client will not have administrator privileges on their machines.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

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NO.17 Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work
with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which resource example should you use to define resource access to a UNIX file share?
A. server/user
B. \\server\share
C. tcp://host:443
D. tcp://host:137/users
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-562   certification JN0-562

NO.19 When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback
addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

certification Juniper   JN0-562   JN0-562   JN0-562

NO.20 What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Answer: CD

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