Dell meilleur examen DC0-261, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: DC0-261
Nom d'Examen: Dell (Dell Storage Networking Professional Exam - Version 2)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three operations are possible using clones? (Choose three.)
A. Up to eight clones can be made from a single source LUN.
B. While a clone is fractured, it can be connected to a host for use.
C. A fractured clone can be accessed for read and write operations.
D. A snapshot of a clone must be reverse synchronized prior to mounting.
E. A live clone can be mounted by a secondary host to use as a standard LUN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What steps should you perform to create a copy of a source LUN in a second storage array, while
minimizing unavailability of the source LUN?
A. use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN, then take a snapshot on the second storage array
B. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the snapshot to the second storage
array
C. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN to the second storage
array
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, run MirrorView to mirror the snapshot to the second array, then
use SAN Copy to synchronize the mirror with the source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.
C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 How many LUNs are required for the Clone Private LUN?
A. one per SP
B. one per clone
C. one per clone group
D. one per storage system
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two states can a clone LUN be in before it can be fractured? (Choose two.)
A. consistent
B. synchronizing
C. synchronized
D. reverse out-of-sync
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which statement best describes bi-directional mirroring as implemented by MirrorView ?
A. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system can be configured as the primary for one
mirror and a secondary for another mirror.
B. By utilizing two storage systems and one tape drive, the two storage systems are configured as a
primary and the secondary is backed up to tape.
C. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system is configured as the primary and the other
storage system is configured as the secondary.
D. By utilizing three storage systems, the two storage systems are configured as a primary and the third
storage system is configured as a secondary that is used to store the primary images.
Answer: A

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NO.7 SAN Copy sessions offer which three capabilities? (Choose three.)
A. providing content push or pull capability
B. offloading Storage Array processing onto hosts
C. migrating data from older arrays to newer arrays in the same SAN fabric
D. distributing and collecting content between the central location and branch offices
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role
assigned to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which four LUN characteristics can be displayed in Navisphere Analyzer? (Choose four.)
A. Bytes Tx / Rx
B. Utilization (%)
C. Capacity (GB)
D. Response Time (ms)
E. Total Bandwidth (MB/sec.)
F. Total Throughput (I/O /sec.)
Answer: BDEF

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NO.10 You are connecting a CX700 to a CX500 through a fabric for Mirrorview. Which two zones must be
completed? (Choose two.)
A. Port 1 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
B. Port 1 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
C. Port 3 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
D. Port 3 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
Answer: CD

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NO.11 How are the LUNs for the Write Intent Log (WIL) configured?
A. WIL LUNs are configured automatically.
B. After manually binding the LUNs, the WIL is automatically configured.
C. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on a per-array basis.
D. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on one array. The WIL is then automatically
replicated to the other array.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
D. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
E. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Which two tasks can Navisphere Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. comparing archived and real-time performance data
B. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC switches
C. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC storage arrays
D. tracking performance trends for hosts connected to Dell / EMC Storage Area Networks (SANs)
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. naviadm
B. admhost
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: B

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NO.15 You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose
two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site.
C. Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which two are examples of how SnapView can be used in conjunction with MirrorView? (Choose two.)
A. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror for use at the remote site.
B. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then back up the snapshot to tape.
C. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the primary mirror and then mirror the snapshot to the
remote site.
D. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then clone the snapshot for use at
the primary site.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 You have installed SAN Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E

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NO.18 You are concerned that the loss of an SP might cause you to lose all of your existing snapshot
sessions. What should you do to prevent losing existing snapshot sessions?
A. add a UPS to the storage array
B. use PowerPath to gain failover support
C. select the Persistent mode when starting a snapshot session
D. Nothing, the Vaulting process automatically saves all snapshots to disk in the PSM LUN.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have a source LUN on a CX500 for which you maintain snapshots for tape backup. You need to
create a new snapshot for this source LUN but are unable to do so. You can create snapshots of other
source LUNs on the array. What is the most likely problem?
A. You have reached the maximum limit of 50 Cache LUNs.
B. You have reached the maximum limit of 8 snapshots per source LUN.
C. You have reached the maximum limit of 150 snapshots per storage system.
D. You have reached the maximum limit of 300 snapshots per storage system.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which three statements are correct about SAN Copy? (Choose three.)
A. SAN Copy can be installed on any model CX array.
B. SAN Copy is a storage array-based Data Mover application.
C. SAN Copy transfers data over a Fibre Channel SAN, as opposed to an IP LAN.
D. SAN Copy sessions can be managed either by Navisphere Manager or by CLI.
Answer: BCD

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Code d'Examen: TT0-201
Nom d'Examen: Convergence Technologies Profession (Convergence Technologies Professional 2007)
Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

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NO.9 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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NO.20 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: RF0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   RF0-001   RF0-001 examen   RF0-001

NO.5 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

CompTIA   RF0-001   RF0-001 examen   RF0-001 examen

NO.7 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

CompTIA   RF0-001 examen   RF0-001

NO.8 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

CompTIA   RF0-001 examen   RF0-001   certification RF0-001

NO.9 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

CompTIA   RF0-001   RF0-001   certification RF0-001

NO.10 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.11 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

CompTIA   RF0-001 examen   certification RF0-001

NO.12 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification RF0-001   RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.13 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

CompTIA   RF0-001 examen   RF0-001

NO.14 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification RF0-001   RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.15 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   RF0-001 examen   certification RF0-001

NO.16 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.17 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification RF0-001   certification RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.18 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   RF0-001   certification RF0-001   RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.20 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 220-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
Questions et réponses: 422 Q&As

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NO.1 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In which
of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?
A. Disk Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Boot DVD
D. The BIOS
Answer: D

CompTIA   220-702   certification 220-702   certification 220-702

NO.3 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   220-702   220-702

NO.4 A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that reports
the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
message?
A. The device needs a firmware update.
B. The device needs an updated driver installed.
C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.
D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network
range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?
A. Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B. Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C. Upgrade the out-of-range users
SSID searching software.
D. Enable network sharing on the users
computers that are within range.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   220-702 examen   220-702   220-702

NO.6 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

CompTIA   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702 examen   certification 220-702

NO.7 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification 220-702   220-702   220-702 examen   220-702   certification 220-702

NO.8 A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect to
the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types IPCONFIG in
the command prompt, the following appears:
IP address 0.0.0.0
Gateway 0.0.0.0
Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0
DNS 0.0.0.0
Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Network adapter drivers
B. Router settings
C. Network cable
D. Firewall
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-702 examen   220-702

NO.9 A customer has a wireless router installed in their home office. The customer is having issues with
signal strength at the opposite end of the house. Which of the following is the BEST option to increase the
signal strength?
A. Install a high gain antennafocused towards the office wall
B. Run CAT5e cable to all of the roomsthat have poor signal strength
C. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
D. Install a second wired router in the far end of the house
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification 220-702   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702

NO.10 Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be
used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in
the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?
A. The document is set to hidden.
B. The document is locked.
C. The document was saved as a system document.
D. The document is owned by the first user.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.12 After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been opened.
How would a technician reset the alert?
A. Change the setting in the registry
B. Change the setting in the BIOS
C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files
D. Change the setting in the Control Panel
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702

NO.13 Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702

NO.15 Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all
video modes?
A. Perform a System Restore
B. Replace the video capture card
C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600
D. Replace the LCD
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   220-702   220-702   220-702 examen

NO.16 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.17 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

CompTIA   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702

NO.18 A technician is replacing the motherboard on a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important
step during the disassembly process?
A. Place all of the screws in a container with other parts.
B. Keep the power supply plugged in to ground the system.
C. Organize the screws and document the locations.
D. Use a magnetic tipped screwdriver to remove the screws.
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-702   220-702   220-702   certification 220-702   220-702

NO.19 Offline files and folders are available on which versions of Windows? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7 Ultimate
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows XP Home
D. Windows Vista Home Premium 64-bit
E. Windows XP Professional
Answer: A,E

CompTIA   220-702 examen   220-702   220-702

NO.20 A computer running Windows 7 will not boot up. A user is receiving an ® I nva li d boo t d i s
error.
Which of the following is the cause of this error?
A. The BOOT.INI file is not found.
B. The Windows registry is corrupt.
C. There is a CD-ROM in the drive.
D. The floppy drive is disconnected.
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-702 examen   220-702   220-702

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CompTIA meilleur examen LX0-101, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: LX0-101
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following
directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
Answer: B,C,E

certification CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101 examen

NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

NO.3 Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   certification LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.4 All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie "s/1/2/" /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification LX0-101   LX0-101   certification LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.5 Which of the following is the difference between the --remove and the --purge action with the dpkg
command.?
A. --remove removes the program, --purge also removes the config files.
B. --remove only removes the program, --purge only removes the config files.
C. --remove removes a package, --purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. --remove removes only the package file itself, --purge removes all files related to the package.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Answer: E

CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101   certification LX0-101

NO.7 In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16
lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101   certification LX0-101

NO.8 An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow
the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification LX0-101   certification LX0-101

NO.9 An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the
administrator's fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount
media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101   certification LX0-101   certification LX0-101

NO.10 An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search
for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.11 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.12 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named _______ is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please
provide the fill name with full path information).
Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

NO.13 To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs
to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program's shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   LX0-101   certification LX0-101

NO.14 Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends
which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to
searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. --max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JK0-018
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ E2C (2011 Edition))
Questions et réponses: 794 Q&As

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NO.1 In an 802.11n network, which of the following provides the MOST secure method of both encryption
and authorization?
A. WEP with 802.1x
B. WPA Enterprise
C. WPA2-PSK
D. WPA with TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.2 With which of the following is RAID MOST concerned?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Baselining
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following requires special handling and explicit policies for data retention and data
distribution?
A. Personally identifiable information
B. Phishing attacks
C. Zero day exploits
D. Personal electronic devices
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.4 Which of the following methods of access, authentication, and authorization is the MOST secure
by default?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host
enumeration by sweep devices?
A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. IPv4
D. ICMP
Answer: D

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NO.6 A new enterprise solution is currently being evaluated due to its potential to increase the company's
profit margins. The security administrator has been asked to review its security implications. While
evaluating the product, various vulnerability scans were performed. It was determined that the product is
not a threat but has the potential to introduce additional vulnerabilities. Which of the following assessment
types should the security administrator also take into consideration while evaluating this product?
A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Code assessment
D. Risk assessment
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack?
A. Memory addressing
B. Directory traversal
C. Initial vector
D. Session cookies
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following should be performed if a smartphone is lost to ensure no data can be retrieved
from it?
A. Device encryption
B. Remote wipe
C. Screen lock
D. GPS tracking
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where are revoked certificates stored?
A. Recovery agent
B. Registration
C. Key escrow
D. CRL
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting
network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports?
A. VLAN separation
B. Access control
C. Loop protection
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA?
A. Private key
B. Symmetric key
C. Recovery key
D. Public key
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended
recipient can decrypt the ciphertext?
A. Private
B. Escrow
C. Public
D. Preshared
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following reduces the likelihood of a single point of failure when a server fails?
A. Clustering
B. Virtualization
C. RAID
D. Cold site
Answer: A

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NO.14 WEP is seen as an unsecure protocol based on its improper use of which of the following?
A. RC6
B. RC4
C. 3DES
D. AES
Answer: B

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NO.15 DRPs should contain which of the following?
A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel
B. Hierarchical list of critical systems
C. Hierarchical access control lists
D. Identification of single points of failure
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Common access card
C. Strong password complexity
D. Biometric authentication
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.17 Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server.?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.18 Centrally authenticating multiple systems and applications against a federated user database is an
example of:
A. smart card.
B. common access card.
C. single sign-on.
D. access control list.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.19 A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent:
A. password sharing.
B. escalation of privileges.
C. implicit deny.
D. administrative account lockout.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following facilitates computing for heavily utilized systems and networks?
A. Remote access
B. Provider cloud
C. VPN concentrator
D. Telephony
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 220-801
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 458 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following MUST be performed when installing a PCI sound card for use instead
of the
onboard sound?
A. Install drivers
B. Install additional memory
C. Configure the jumpers
D. Flash the BIOS
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the speed limitation for CAT3 wiring?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 1000 Mbps
Answer: B

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NO.3 A client wants a technician to install more RAM on their graphics workstation. The client has
provided a 4 GB SODIMM and had problems installing it.
Which of the following is the probable reason for this?
A. Graphic workstations require flash memory
B. The memory is incompatible for the workstation
C. Graphic workstations require solid state memory
D. The workstation has no available memory slots
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?
A. RJ-11
B. ST
C. F
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is representative of a class C address type?
A. 10.15.1.4
B. 169.254.125.15
C. 172.20.15.5
D. 192.168.1.15
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following wireless standards is backwards compatible with 802.11g?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.1q
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-801   220-801 examen   220-801   220-801

NO.7 Which type of fire extinguishing technology should be used when encountering an electrical
fire?
A. Class B fire extinguishers
B. Overhead sprinkler system
C. Water-based fire extinguishers
D. Non-water based extinguishers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following ports MUST be open to connect to a PC using RDP.?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 3389
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is the MAXIMUM transfer speed of USB 2.0?
A. 100 Mbps
B. 400 Mbps
C. 420 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification 220-801   220-801 examen   220-801

NO.10 Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?
A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following are the MOST important factors to address when a technician is
choosing
the components for a CAD workstation? (Select THREE).
A. Large drive space allocation
B. Powerful sound card
C. Multiple network cards
D. Multiple large HD monitors
E. Powerful video card
F. Maximum RAM
G. Powerful processor
Answer: E,F,G

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NO.12 Which of the following cable types has the MAXIMUM transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following types of RAM can be used in a dual channel configuration?
A. SDRAM
B. RAMBUS
C. DDR
D. DIMM
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-801   220-801   220-801   220-801   220-801 examen

NO.14 Which of the following hard drive types would be considered the MOST likely to survive a
fall?
A. SCSI
B. Solid State
C. IDE
D. SATA
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following features of Windows allows a device to have a default IP address if a
DHCP
server is not available?
A. APIPA
B. ARP
C. IPv6
D. DNS
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following is the BEST way to explain RAID to a non-technical user?
A. RAID is a dynamic logical disk management system.
B. RAID uses multiple hard disks to increase performance and/or provide protection against data
loss.
C. RAID uses data striping to reduce hard drive write time and parity bits to reconstruct the data
from a
failed hard drive.
D. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks .
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following tools are commonly used to remove dust and debris from inside a
computer?
(Select TWO).
A. Cotton and alcohol
B. Vacuum
C. Compressed air
D. Anti-bacterial surface cleaner
E. Feather duster
Answer: B,C

certification CompTIA   220-801   220-801   220-801

NO.18 Which of the following will provide the BEST protection against power failures and data loss?
A. Auto-switching power supply
B. Uninterruptible power supply
C. Line conditioner
D. Surge suppressor
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is the BEST protocol to use for securely transferring large files?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. FTP
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 62.10.1.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: BI0-145
Nom d'Examen: COGNOS (IBM Cognos 8 BI Multidimensional Author)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a
caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this
action?
A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. This action will remove the caption from the report layout, but leave the query in the report.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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NO.3 A data source has a Time hierarchy, a Products hierarchy, and a Retailers hierarchy. What are the
preferred techniques the report author would use to focus reports for this type of a data source?
A. Dimensional functions and slicers
B. Months and product lines
C. Intermediates and descendants
D. Detail filters and summary filters
Answer: A

COGNOS   BI0-145   BI0-145   BI0-145   BI0-145

NO.4 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

certification COGNOS   BI0-145 examen   BI0-145

NO.5 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Levels
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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