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Code d'Examen: MSC-121
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.4 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.5 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.9 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.12 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.14 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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Les meilleures Motorola Solutions MSC-431 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MSC-431
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.4 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.6 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-04A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 In a service-oriented analysis process, business and technology experts are encouraged to
collaborate hands-on so that they can jointly model service candidates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 An SOA project carried out with a top-down approach can contain phases that require the completion
of the following tasks:
A. development of services
B. design of services
C. analysis of services
D. testing of services
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. The bottom-up approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
B. The top-down approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
C. The bottom-up approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort
be carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
D. The top-down approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Inventory Management System project is delivering a modest solution comprised of three services.
The project team is following a bottom-up approach whereby service developers are building the services
to fulfill tactical (short-term) requirements. Although not everyone agrees with this approach, it does
actually directly support the following service-oriented computing goal:
A. Increased Intrinsic Interoperability
B. Increased Business and Technology Alignment
C. Increased Federation
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Bottom-up delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements while top-down
delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements.
A. tactical (short-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), strategic (long-term)
C. tactical (short-term), strategic (long-term)
D. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Top-down approaches typically ____________ the long-term governance burden of services.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. eliminate
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A service candidate is:
A. a conceptual service
B. a proposed service that may not yet physically exist
C. a modeled service produced via a service modeling process
D. a modeled service that initially acts as the starting point for the physical design of the service
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to start building
services before completing our top-down analysis.
B. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to complete our
service inventory blueprint before delivering our services.
C. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to bypass up-front
analysis altogether so that we could build our services in the shortest possible timeframe.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is true?
A. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach allows an on-going top-down analysis to occur while
services are designed and delivered. The only requirement is that delivered services eventually be
updated to be kept in alignment with the results of the top-down analysis.
B. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the bottom-up approach in that it
allows services to be delivered without up-front analysis. The only difference is that the
meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of object-orientation principles instead of
service-orientation principles.
C. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the top-down approach in that it
allows services to be delivered after the completion of the top-down analysis. The only difference is that
the meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of people that act as mediators who ensure that
business analysts and technology architects can collaborate harmoniously.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Two service delivery projects are being carried out concurrently. Each project has its own project team.
Even though both projects are delivering services for the same service inventory, each project team is
given complete independence as to how services are designed and developed and what design
standards are to be used. Which of the following statements describes a likely consequence of this
approach.?
A. The service inventory will be comprised of services that comply to different design standards and these
services will therefore not be compatible or interoperable.
B. Services with redundant and overlapping logic may be delivered because no effort was made to
coordinate the delivery of the services between the two projects.
C. One project team may decide to follow a top-down delivery approach, whereas the other project team
may follow a bottom-up delivery approach.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following tends to be the most expensive and time consuming project delivery strategy?
A. bottom-up
B. top-down
C. meet-in-the-middle
D. round-about
Answer: C

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NO.12 The Claims Solution project is responsible for delivering a service composition comprised of seven
services. The project team is following a meet-in-the-middle approach whereby a service analyst and two
service architects will continue carrying out a top-down analysis effort after the initial set of services is
designed and developed. What will happen after the top-down analysis completes and the final service
candidates are noticeably different from the services that have already been delivered?
A. The previously delivered services remain in use until they can no longer fulfill their functional
requirements, at which point they are retired and replaced with new services based on the final service
candidates.
B. The previously delivered services are later redesigned and redeveloped as per the final service
candidates in order to bring the services in the Claims Solution in alignment with the target service
inventory blueprint.
C. The previously delivered services are not changed and the final service candidates serve as a constant
reminder as to how they should have been designed.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is false?
A. With the bottom-up approach, services are built on an "as need" basis and are modeled to encapsulate
application logic to best serve the immediate requirements of the solution.
B. The bottom-up approach is often motivated by integration needs that may require establishing
point-to-point integration channels between legacy systems.
C. The bottom-up approach is focused primarily on maximizing service reuse. Therefore, special attention
is paid to the documentation of service profile information that is used to create complete service catalog
entries.
D. The bottom-up approach can result in the creation of hybrid services that contain a mix of logic from
different sources.
Answer: C

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NO.14 SOA projects introduce new considerations that tend to augment the traditional project lifecycle as
follows:
A. they tend to introduce the need for more up-front analysis effort
B. they tend to require closer collaboration between business and technology experts
C. they tend to require a careful prioritization of tactical (short-term) and strategic (long-term)
requirements
D. they tend to introduce new project roles
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 The primary deliverable of the service inventory analysis is a ____________ of the service inventory.
A. blueprint
B. contract
C. composition architecture
D. legend
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PW0-270
Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

CWAP   PW0-270   PW0-270 examen

NO.2 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

CWAP   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270 examen

NO.3 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.4 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

CWAP   PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270

NO.5 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

CWAP   PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270

NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

CWAP   certification PW0-270   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270   PW0-270 examen

NO.9 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.10 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: L50-503
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503 examen

NO.4 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

LSI examen   L50-503 examen   L50-503 examen   L50-503

NO.5 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

LSI examen   L50-503 examen   L50-503 examen

NO.6 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

LSI examen   L50-503 examen   L50-503 examen

NO.7 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

LSI   L50-503   certification L50-503   L50-503

NO.8 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.12 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

certification LSI   L50-503 examen   L50-503

NO.13 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503

NO.15 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

LSI   L50-503   L50-503

NO.16 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

certification LSI   L50-503   L50-503

NO.17 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.18 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.19 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

LSI   L50-503   certification L50-503

NO.20 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: GISF
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 438 Q&As

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NO.1 How long are cookies in effect if no expiration date is set?
A. Fifteen days
B. Until the session ends.
C. Forever
D. One year
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a virus.
B. It contains Trojans.
C. It is antivirus.
D. It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project
using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network
infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the
requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you
employ to accomplish the
task?
A. Physical configuration audit
B. Configuration control
C. Functional configuration audit
D. Configuration identification
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as an Exchange Administrator for TechWorld Inc. The company has a Windows 2008 Active
Directory-based network. The network contains an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
The messaging organization contains one Hub Transport server, one Client Access server, and two
Mailbox servers.
You are planning to deploy an Edge Transport server in your messaging organization to minimize the
attack surface. At which of the following locations will you deploy the Edge Transport server?
A. Active Directory site
B. Intranet
C. Behind the inner firewall of an organization
D. Perimeter network
Answer: D

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NO.5 John works as an Exchange Administrator for Apple Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 Active
Directory domain-based network. The network contains several Windows Server 2003 servers. Three of
them have been configured as domain controllers. John complains to the Network Administrator that he is
unable to manage group memberships. Which of the following operations master roles is responsible for
managing group memberships?
A. PDC emulator
B. Infrastructure master
C. Schema master
D. RID master
Answer: B

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NO.6 How should you configure the Regional Centers' e-mail, so that it is secure and encrypted? (Click the
Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Use EFS.
B. Use IPSec.
C. Use S/MIME.
D. Use TLS.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Based on the information given in the case study, which two authentication methods should you use to
allow customers to access their photos on the Web site?
(Click the Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Basic authentication without SSL
B. Digest authentication with SSL
C. Integrated Windows authentication
D. Anonymous access
E. Basic authentication with SSL
F. Digest authentication without SSL
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Mark is implementing security on his e-commerce site. He wants to ensure that a customer sending a
message is really the one he claims to be. Which of the following techniques will he use to ensure this?
A. Packet filtering
B. Authentication
C. Firewall
D. Digital signature
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have successfully installed an IRM server into your environment. This IRM server will be utilized to
protect the company's videos, which are available to all employees but contain sensitive data. You log on
to the WSS 3.0 server with administrator permissions and navigate to the Operations section. What option
should you now choose so that you can input the RMS server name for the WSS 3.0 server to use.?
A. Self-service site management
B. Content databases
C. Information Rights Management
D. Define managed paths
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following protocols can help you get notified in case a router on a network fails?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: B

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NO.11 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. IPChains
B. OpenSSH
C. Stunnel
D. IPTables
Answer: D

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NO.12 In a complex network, Router transfers data packets by observing some form of parameters or metrics
provided in the routing table. Which of the following metrics is NOT included in the routing table?
A. Bandwidth
B. Load
C. Delay
D. Frequency
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your company is going to add wireless connectivity to the existing LAN. You have concerns about the
security of the wireless access and wish to implement encryption. Which of the following would be the
best choice for you to use?
A. WAP
B. WEP
C. DES
D. PKI
Answer: B

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NO.14 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the
business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to
perform at an agreed level over a period of time?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Maintainability
B. Resilience
C. Error control
D. Recoverability
E. Reliability
F. Security
G. Serviceability
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.15 Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today. Which of the
following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and
reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
A. Cryptography
B. OODA loop
C. Risk analysis
D. Firewall security
Answer: A

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NO.16 You work as a security manager for Qualxiss Inc. Your Company involves OODA loop for resolving and
deciding over company issues. You have detected a security breach issue in your company.
Which of the following procedures regarding the breach is involved in the observe phase of the OODA
loop?
A. Follow the company security guidelines.
B. Decide an activity based on a hypothesis.
C. Implement an action practically as policies.
D. Consider previous experiences of security breaches.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company has a secure wireless network.
However, in the last few days, an attack has been taking place over and over again. This attack is taking
advantage of ICMP directed broadcast. To stop this attack, you need to disable ICMP directed broadcasts.
Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. Smurf attack
B. Sniffer attack
C. Cryptographic attack
D. FMS attack
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and
applications?
A. Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)
B. Internet service provider (ISP)
C. Network Access Point (NAP)
D. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following are the goals of the cryptographic systems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.20 Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Privacy
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.21 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application. You want to use the
application to encrypt data. You use the HashAlgorithmType enumeration to specify the algorithm used for
generating Message Authentication Code (MAC) in Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) communications.
Which of the following are valid values for HashAlgorithmType enumeration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. MD5
B. None
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA1
F. 3DES
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.22 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to test the effect of a virus on the We-are-secure server. He injects
the virus on the server and, as a result, the server becomes infected with the virus even though an
established antivirus program is installed on the server. Which of the following do you think are the
reasons why the antivirus installed on the server did not detect the virus injected by John?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The virus, used by John, is not in the database of the antivirus program installed on the ser ver.
B. The mutation engine of the virus is generating a new encrypted code.
C. John has created a new virus.
D. John has changed the signature of the virus.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.23 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.
You have configured an Internet access router on the network. A user complains that he is unable to
access a resource on the Web. You know that a bad NAT table entry is causing the issue. You decide to
clear all the entries on the table. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. show ip dhcp binding
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. ipconfig /all
D. clear ip nat translation *
Answer: D

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NO.24 You are a Product manager of Marioxiss Inc. Your company management is having a conflict with
another company Texasoftg Inc. over an issue of security policies. Your legal advisor has prepared a
document that includes the negotiation of views for both the companies. This solution is supposed to be
the key for conflict resolution. Which of the following are the forms of conflict resolution that have been
employed by the legal
advisor?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Orientation
B. Mediation
C. Negotiation
D. Arbitration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.25 Which of the following protocols provides secured transaction of data between two computers?
A. SSH
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. RSH
Answer: A

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NO.26 You are a Consumer Support Technician. You are helping a user troubleshoot computer-related issues.
While troubleshooting the user's computer, you find a malicious program similar to a virus or worm. The
program negatively affects the privacy and security of the computer and is capable of damaging the
computer. Which of the following alert levels of Windows Defender is set for this program?
A. Low
B. High
C. Severe
D. Medium
Answer: C

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NO.27 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. The company is aware of various types of security attacks and wants to impede them. Hence,
management has assigned John a project to port scan the company's Web Server. For this, he uses the
nmap port scanner and issues the following command to perform idleport scanning:
nmap -PN -p- -sI IP_Address_of_Company_Server
He analyzes that the server's TCP ports 21, 25, 80, and 111 are open.
Which of the following security policies is the company using during this entire process to mitigate the risk
of hacking attacks?
A. Audit policy
B. Antivirus policy
C. Non-disclosure agreement
D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: A

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NO.28 You are the project manager of SST project. You are in the process of collecting and distributing
performance information including status report, progress measurements, and forecasts. Which of the
following process are you performing?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Report Performance
D. Control Scope
Answer: C

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NO.29 Your company is covered under a liability insurance policy, which provides various liability coverage for
information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc.
Which of the following risk management techniques is your company using?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following types of virus is capable of changing its signature to avoid detection?
A. Stealth virus
B. Boot sector virus
C. Macro virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: GSNA
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 368 Q&As

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NO.1 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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NO.4 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.6 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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NO.8 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.13 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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NO.16 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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