2014年4月30日星期三

Oracle meilleur examen 1Z0-852, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-852
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 } }

NO.2 class C extends B { void c1() { } }
and:
A x = new B(); C y = new C(); A z = new C();
What are four valid examples of polymorphic method calls? (Choose four.)
A. x.a2();
B. z.a2();
C. z.c1();
D. z.a1();
E. y.c1();
F. x.a1();
Answer: A,B,D,F

Oracle   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852
5.A company that makes Computer Assisted Design (CAD) software has, within its application, some
utility classes that are used to perform 3D rendering tasks. The company's chief scientist has just
improved the performance of one of the utility classes' key rendering algorithms, and has assigned a
programmer to replace the old algorithm with the new algorithm. When the programmer begins
researching the utility classes, she is happy to discover that the algorithm to be replaced exists in only one
class. The programmer reviews that class's API, and replaces the old algorithm with the new algorithm,
being careful that her changes adhere strictly to the class's API. Once testing has begun, the programmer
discovers that other classes that use the class she
changed are no longer working properly. What design flaw is most likely the cause of these new bugs?
A. Inheritance
B. Tight coupling
C. Low cohesion
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B

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6.Given:
11. class Mammal { }
12.
13. class Raccoon extends Mammal {
14. Mammal m = new Mammal();
15. }
16.
17. class BabyRaccoon extends Mammal { }
Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. Raccoon is-a Mammal.
B. Raccoon has-a Mammal.
C. BabyRaccoon is-a Mammal.
D. BabyRaccoon is-a Raccoon.
E. BabyRaccoon has-a Mammal.
F. BabyRaccoon is-a BabyRaccoon.
Answer: A,B,C,F

certification Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
7.Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. } 6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A,B,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
8.Given that:
Gadget has-a Sprocket and
Gadget has-a Spring and
Gadget is-a Widget and
Widget has-a Sprocket
Which two code fragments represent these relationships? (Choose two.)
A. class Widget { Sprocket s; }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s; }
B. class Widget { }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
C. class Widget { Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
class Gadget extends Widget { }
D. class Gadget { Spring s; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s; }
E. class Gadget { }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
F. class Gadget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ }
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
9.Given the following six method names:
addListener
addMouseListener
setMouseListener
deleteMouseListener
removeMouseListener
registerMouseListener
How many of these method names follow JavaBean Listener naming rules?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
10.Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Compilation fails.
B. The code compiles and the output is 2.
C. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, compilation would fail.
D. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, compilation would fail.
E. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be2.
F. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 1.
Answer: B,E,F

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
11.Given:
1. class Alligator {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. int []x[] = {{1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8,9}};
4. int [][]y = x;
5. System.out.println(y[2][1]);
6. }
7. }
What is the result?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
F. Compilation fails.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen   1Z0-852 examen
12.Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + " ");
15. }
What is the result?
A. 1 2 3
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852
13.Given:
11. public interface A { public void m1(); }
12.
13. class B implements A { }
14. class C implements A { public void m1() { } }
15. class D implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
16. abstract class E implements A { }
17. abstract class F implements A { public void m1() { } }
18. abstract class G implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. Exactly one class does NOT compile.
C. Exactly two classes do NOT compile.
D. Exactly four classes do NOT compile.
E. Exactly three classes do NOT compile.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852
14.Given:
21. abstract class C1 {
22. public C1() { System.out.print(1); }
23. }
24. class C2 extends C1 {
25. public C2() { System.out.print(2); }
26. }
27. class C3 extends C2 {
28. public C3() { System.out.println(3); }
29. }
30. public class Ctest {
31. public static void main(String[] a) { new C3(); }
32. }
What is the result?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 32
D. 123
E. 321
F. Compilation fails.
G. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
15.Given:
1. public class A {
2. public void doit() {
3. }
4. public String doit() {
5. return "a";
6. }
7. public double doit(int x) {
8. return 1.0;
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
D. Compilation succeeds and no runtime errors with class A occur.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852

NO.3 Base b = new Base();

NO.4 public static final String FOO = "foo";

NO.5 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.6 }

NO.7 Given:
1. public class Base {

NO.8 System.out.print(b.FOO);

NO.9 System.out.print(Base.FOO);

NO.10 System.out.print(Sub.FOO);

NO.11 void a2() { }

NO.12 System.out.print(((Base)s).FOO);

NO.13 }
Which is true?
A. If line 10 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
B. If line 11 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
C. If line 12 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
D. If line 13 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
E. More than one line must be removed for compilation to succeed.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
4.Given:
10. abstract class A {
11. abstract void a1();
12. void a2() { }
13. }
14. class B extends A {
15. void a1() { }

NO.14 }

NO.15 Sub s = new Sub();

NO.16 Building build2 = (Building) barn1;

NO.17 class Sub extends Base {public static final String FOO="bar";}
What is the result?
A. foofoofoofoofoo
B. foobarfoobarbar
C. foobarfoofoofoo
D. foobarfoobarfoo
E. barbarbarbarbar
F. foofoofoobarbar
G. foofoofoobarfoo
Answer: D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852
2.A company has a business application that provides its users with many different reports: receivables
reports, payables reports, revenue projects, and so on. The company has just
purchased some new, state-of-the-art, wireless printers, and a programmer has been assigned the task of
enhancing all of the reports to use not only the company's old printers, but the new wireless printers as
well. When the programmer starts looking into the application, the programmer discovers that because of
the design of the application, it is necessary to make changes to eachreport to support the new printers.
Which two design concepts most likely explain this situation.? (Choose two.)
A. Inheritance
B. Low cohesion
C. Tight coupling
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
3.Given:
5. class Building { }
6. public class Barn extends Building {
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Building build1 = new Building();
9. Barn barn1 = new Barn();
10. Barn barn2 = (Barn) build1;
11. Object obj1 = (Object) build1;
12. String str1 = (String) build1;

NO.18 System.out.print(s.FOO);

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-860
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Business Component Developer Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 305 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following stateful session bean:
10. @Stateful
11. @TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)
12. public class VideoBean implements Video {
13. // insert code here
14. public void methodAO {}
15.}
Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to
guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?
A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO"ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
Answer: C

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NO.2 A developer implemented a Java class called Store. The class is annotated correctly to act as an entity.
The developer created a stateless session bean to create, lookup, and remove Store objects. This
session bean has a container-managed entity manager injected into field em and a removeStore method
with transaction attribute REQUIRED.
Given the following code :
32. public void re move St ore (St ore store) {
33. em.remove(store); 34.}
What is a possible reason that an HlegalArgumentException is thrown at Line 33 when the
removeStore method is called by a remote client?
A. Thepassedobject is NOT serializable.
B. Thepassed object is NOT found inthedatabase.
C. The passed object is NOT managed by the entity manager.
D. There is no active transaction to manage the database removal.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860   1Z0-860

NO.3 // insert code here

NO.4 A developer writes a session bean which uses several configurable constants.
The constants are all defined as String types in JNDI. This cannot be changed because existing code is
using the same JNDI information. One of the constants is a date, represented in string format. This date
constant is used in multiple business methods of this session bean, actually as a Date object.
Converting strings to dates is an expensive operation; therefore, the developer wants to do as little
converting as possible.
Which two scenarios can be used to prevent converting from String to Date in every business method?
(Choose two.)
A. Loadthe date string in an instance Date type variablebyannotation of the instance variable and let the
container autoconvert it to a Datetypeautomatically.
B. Load thedate string in an instance String type variablebyannotation of this instance
variableandconvertitto aDatetype object in the beans constructor.
C. Load thedatestringinaninstanceString typevariableby annotationof this instance variable and convert it
to aDate typeobjectin a@PostConstructannotatedmethod.
D. Load the date string in an instance Date typevariableby annotation ofasetter method that takes a String
and which carries out the conversion and assigns the value totheinstance variable.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Given:
11..Entity public class X{
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y;
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are
provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. ClassYmust be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is notdefinedcorrectly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. ClassY must be accessedbyapersistenceapplication throughapublicinterface.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860   1Z0-860

NO.6 Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?
A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen

NO.7 </container-transaction>
Which statement is correct about the business methods in MrBean?
A. All methods have transactionattributeREQUIRED.
B. All methodshavetransaction attributeMANDATORY.
C. All methodshavetransaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
D. Methods with name store Stuff have transaction attributeMANDATORYand all other methods have
transaction attribute REQUIRED.
E. MethodswithnamestoreStuffhavetransaction attribute MANDATORY andall othermethods have
transaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
F. Methodswithname store Stuff haveatransaction attribute REQUIRED andallother methods have
transaction attribute NOT SUPPORTED.
Answer: E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860
24.Which four are defined in the EJB specification as a standard EJB role? (Choose four.
A. End Point Provider
B. Persistence Provider
C. NameSpace Provider
D. JSF Interface Provider
E. ApplicationAssembler
F. EJBContainerProvider
G. EnterpriseBeanProvider
Answer: B,E,F,G

certification Oracle   1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860
25.The syntax of the ORDER BY clause is defined in the Java Persistence API
asorderby_clause ::=ORDER BY orderbyjtem {, orderbyjtem}* Which statement is correct about the use of
ORDER BY clauses?
A. Only literals can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
B. Fields or properties of any type can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
C. The ordering must be specified if two or more orderbyjtem methods are provided.
D. If two orderbyjtem methods are provided the left orderbyjtem has the higher precedence.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860
26.A developer is writing implementation code for an EJB 3.0 message-driven bean class that processes
booking requests. Within the business logic of the onMessage method, a temporary problem can occur. In
that case the developer wants to make sure that the booking request is processed again in 30 minutes.
Which two can the developer select? (Choose two.)
A. Throwa runtimeexception torollbackthetransaction.
B. Call setRollbackOnly on the MessageDrivenContext interface.
C. Makeuseof the TimerService, and implement the TimedObject interface.
D. Make use of the TimerService,implement areprocess method, and annotate it with @Timeout.
E. Throw an application exception, and addtheretry-after attribute to the deployment descriptor.
Answer: C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860
27.Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes:
Method M1=SUPPORTS
Method M2=REQUIRED
Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED
Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW
And the following method invocation sequence:
Method M1 invokes Method M2
Method M2 invokes Method M3
Method M1 invokes Method M4
If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a
possible scenario?
A. Method M1notransaction
MethodM2new transaction
Method M3no transaction
MethodM4newtransaction
B. Method M1notransaction
Method M2Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. MethodM1new transaction
Method M2runs in same transaction as M1
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1no transaction
Method M2new transaction
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
Answer: A

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28.OldBarBean is a stateless session bean written to the EJB 2.1 API with remote home interface.
OldBarHome and remote component interface OldBar. FooBean is a stateless session bean written to the
EJB 3.0 API.
OldBarBean and FooBean are the only EJBs packaged in the ejb-jar. The FooBean portion of the ejb-jar.
xml also declares an ejb-ref whose ejb-ref-name is ejb/oldBar. The ejb-ref is linked to OldBarBean. There
are no other ejb dependencies defined.
A business method foo in FooBean needs to access OldBarBean.
Which is portable code to achieve this goal?
A. .Remote
private OldBar oldBar;
B. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
Object obj = ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) PortableRemoteObject.narrow(obj,
OldBarHome.class)
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createO;
C. @EJB private OldBarHome OldBarHome;
public void fooQ
{
try
{
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
D. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-860   1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860
29.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
A Department entity is in a one-to-many relationship with an Employee entity. A developer has been
asked to write a Java Persistence query to update the set of employees who are in the department 'HR'
by setting their department to null.
Construct a query using the Java Persistence query language to perform this task.
Construct a valid Java Persistence query by dragging and dropping the syntax fragements.
Answer:

NO.8 A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container
managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an
injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext.
Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject
Answer: B,D

Oracle   1Z0-860   1Z0-860   1Z0-860

NO.9 A Reader entity has a one-to-many, bidirectional relationship with a Book entity. Two Reader entities
are persisted, each having two Book entities associated with them. For example, readeM has booka and
bookb, while reader2 has bookc and bookd. Which query returns a Collection of fewer than four
elements?
A. SELECT b.reader FROM Book b
B. SELECT r FROM BookbINNER JOINb.readerr
C. SELECTrFROM Reader r INNER JOIN r.booksb
D. SELECTrfrom BookbLEFT JOIN b.readerr LEFTJOINFETCHr.books
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-860 examen   certification 1Z0-860

NO.10 </method>

NO.11 Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. .PostConstruct public boolean initQ {return true; }
B. .PostConstruct private static void init0 {}
C. .PostConstruct private void init0 {}
D. .PostConstruct public static void initQ {}
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860   1Z0-860

NO.12 A session bean's business method throws an exception during execution.
Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data
integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original
exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the
original exception.
Answer: A,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860

NO.13 There are no transaction annotations at the method level.
Given the following snippet of an ejb-jar.xml:
23. <container-transaction>
24. <method>
25. <ejb-name>MrBean</ejb-name>

NO.14 Given this Java EE application that uses a JTA application-managed entity manager:
20. UserTransaction utx = ...;
21. utx.beginQ;

NO.15 An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which
two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the
enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean methodasunchecked.
B. The client's principalhas beenassigned a securityrolewithpermissionto invokethe method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. TheApplicationAssemblerhas mapped all security role references using the role-link element.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen   1Z0-860

NO.16 public void storeStuffQ {}

NO.17 The ejb-jar file format is a contract between which two EJB role pairs? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer and System Administrator
B. Application Assembler and Deployer
C. Bean Provider and Application Assembler
D. Bean Provider and EJB Container Provider
E. EJB Server Provider and EJB Container Provider
F. Application Assembler and EJB Container Provider
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 An enterprise developer needs to modify the order of interceptor method execution specified by the
Bean Provider, but does NOT have access to the bean's source code. No deployment descriptor was
provided in the ejb-jar delivered by the Bean Provider. Which represents the solution to this problem?
A. No solution is possible under these conditions.
B. TheDeployer canadd metadataannotations totheejb-jar.
C. The Application Assembler can add metadata annotations to the ejb-jar.
D. TheSystem Administrator can addinterceptorbinding informationatruntime, using vendor-specific tools.
E. TheApplication Assembler canaddadeployment descriptor totheejb-jarthat includesinterceptor
binding information.
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z0-860   1Z0-860   1Z0-860

NO.19 A developer has created an application-managed entity manager. Which statement is correct?
A. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
B. A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
C. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a JTA
transaction.
D. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local
transaction.
Answer: A

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NO.20 <transaction-attribute>Mandatory</transaction-attribute>

NO.21 A developer writes a stateful session bean called FooBean.
Which code can be inserted before Line 11 of the FooBean class to define a TYPE-level
environment dependency on a JMS Topic?
11. public class FooBean {
12.
13. public void fooQ {}
14.
15.}
A. @Resource(type=Topic. class)
B. @Resource(name="topicRef) private static Topic topic;
C. .ResourceprivateTopic topic;
D. @Resource(name="topicRef', type=Topic. class)
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B

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NO.23 A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on
the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method.
Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in
combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. AnnotatemethoddoStuff with@RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement thebehaviorfor users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role
"ADMIN".
Answer: B,D

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NO.24 Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B

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NO.25 <method-name>storeStuff</method-name>

NO.26 A developer wants to create a JMS message-driven bean that responds to javax.jms.TextMessage
messages. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The developer must implement the ejbCreate method.
B. The developer does NOT need to create a business interface for the bean.
C. The developer must implement a method that declares javax.jms.TextMessage as an
argument.
D. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax.jms.MessageListener interface.
E. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax. ejb.
MessageDnvenBean interface.
Answer: B,D

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NO.27 Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always
uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a
resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control
Answer: A

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NO.28 Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo beanl;
11. @EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20. booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);
21. booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true.? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo isstateful,testlistrue, and test2 is true.
B. IfFoo is stateful, testlis true,andtest2isfalse.
C. IfFoo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. IfFoois stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo isstateless, testl istrue,and test2 is false.
F. If Fooisstateless, testl is false, andtest2is false.
Answer: B,C

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NO.29 A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system.
Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean
and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Readthe datain the bean's constructor.
B. The datacan only bereadinthebean's business methods.
C. Read thedatain a method which is annotated with@PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Readthedata ina methodwhich is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.
Answer: E

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NO.30 utx.commitQ;
Which two code fragments can be used on Line 22 to persist an order instance assuming that all
references are properly initialized? (Choose two.
A. em.merge(order); em.flushQ;
B. em.persist(order); em.flushO;
C. em.joinTransactionO; em.persist(order);
D. em = emfcreateEntityManagerQ; em.persist(order);
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1Z0-860   certification 1Z0-860
22.A developer writes two session beans which cooperate. The first session bean, ShoppingCart, collects
orders and is implemented as a stateful session bean. The second session bean, CalculateDiscount, is
implemented as a stateless session bean and runs on a different server.
ShoppingCart contains the method getTotalPrice, which calculates the total price of the order in the
ShoppingCart, including discounts. Discounts are calculated by CalculateDiscount using the information
on the ShoppingCart bean, combined with data from a database. Which scenario can accomplish this?
A. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
the this reference.
B. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the ShoppingCart instance by JNDI lookup.
C. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
its reference obtained from the SessionContext.getBusinessObject method.
D. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the state of ShoppingCart by dependency injection.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-860   1Z0-860 examen
23.A CMT session bean named MrBean is annotated as follows :
21. @Stateless(name="MrBean")
22. @TransactionAttribute0"ransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED)
23. public class MrBean {

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-876
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Certified Associate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 157 Q&As

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NO.1 Jane is trying to configure the swat utility. The software and man pages are located in the /usr/sfw
directory. When Jane attempts to use the man command the following message appears:
$ man swat
No manual entry for swat.
Choose the command that Jane can execute to display the man page.?
A. man /usr/sfw/swat
B. man -f /usr/sfw/swat
C. man -M /usr/sfw/man swat
D. man -s 1M swat
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Based on the information in this exhibit, which files can user Jane delete?
A. file1 file2 log
B. file2 log
C. file1 file3 log
D. file1 file2 file3 log
Answer: D

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NO.3 Val has gathered information about the data stored in her home directory using the following command
line.
$ du -sk * | sort -n | tail > file2
Which answer correctly describes what happens when the command is invoked?
A. The tail command redirects stdin to file2
B. The sort command redirects stdout to the du command
C. The stdout from the du command is sent to the sort command
D. The stderr from the tail command will be sent to file2
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Frank needs to add write access for the sales group, so he uses the following command:
$ chmod g+w project543.dat Choose which answer reflects the result of this command.
A. Only the sales group will be given write access to the file.
B. Only the sales group and market group will have write access to the file.
C. The sales group and market group and user jane will have write access to the file.
D. The sales group and market group and user jane and others will have write access to the file. Answer:
C

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows information about data in Jane's home directory. Which answer describes where the
directory named dir1 is stored within the file system.
A. In the inode associated with directory dir1
B. In the directory file called dir1
C. In the ACL associated with dir1
D. In the directory file called widgets
E. In the inode associated with directory widgets
F. In the ACL associated with widgets
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's home directory. Jane wants to delete the directory dir1. Choose the
command that would remove only the dir1 directory.
A. rm ./widgets/*
B. rm ./widgets/dir1
C. rm -r ./widgets
D. rmdir ./widgets/dir1
Answer: D

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NO.7 Tina has executed the following command:
$ affiliate.sh 2>>/var/log/worklog
Choose the statement that is true concerning this command.
A. stdin is redirected to a file.
B. stderr is redirected to a file.
C. stdout is redirected to a file.
D. all output from the script is redirected to a file.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-876   1Z0-876   1Z0-876   1Z0-876

NO.8 Jane is about to edit a file with the vi editor. She executes the following command:
$ vi ./customer_sat.txt
Choose the vi editor mode that Jane will be using when the file is opened.
A. command mode
B. edit mode
C. last line mode
D. ex mode
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-876 examen   1Z0-876

NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the exhibit. Choose the answer the best describes the 8th field of the output of an ls command.
A. file creation time
B. inode change time
C. last access time
D. last modify time
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your logging into the system as user Val, you are notified upon login that you must change your user
password on the system. Your current password is 2co0lu! Choose the password that meets the
requirements for a user changing the password on a Solaris 10 system.
A. 2co0l4u
B. valiscol
C. 2C00L4u2
D. 321 123!
Answer: C

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NO.11 Consider the following command:
$ cal 9 1752
The cal command is followed by which one of the following choices? A. arguments
B. options
C. variables
D. preferences
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the contents of her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose which
command she would have entered to produce this output.
A. ls -lR
B. ls -lLR
C. ls -lr
D. ls -LR *
E. ls -lr *
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the first few lines of a system run control script. In which shell is this script executed?
A. Bourne Shell
B. Z Shell
C. C Shell
D. Korn Shell
E. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.14 Frank executes the following single command line:
$ ln /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game /export/home/frank/bookdata Choose the files that
would result from executing this command.
A. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 enders_game
B. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 27 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game ->
/export/home/frank/bookdata
C. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 bookdata
D. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 42 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/bookdata ->
/export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have a file that contains a list of parts in a single column. You need to append the text
string .ex2009 to each entry. You will use the vi editor and the last line mode to append this text to each
entry. Which command will add the text correctly?
A. :%s/*/.ex2009/
B. :%s/.$/.ex2009/
C. :%s/$/.ex2009/
D. :%s/*$/.ex2009/
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-876   1Z0-876

NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Jane has listed the files in her home directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose the answers that correctly
describes the files in this directory. (Choose three.)
A. The file fixit is a symbolic link to the file repair
B. The file buttons can be executed by a user in the sales group
C. The file gadget could be a hard link to the file buttons
D. The file search can be modified by users in the sales group
E. The file repair is a symbolic link to the file fixit
F. Users in the sales group can enter the widgets directory
Answer: C,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-876   certification 1Z0-876   certification 1Z0-876

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the first entry buttons. Choose the
commands that might have been used to create this file.
A. cp snippets buttons
B. ln gadget buttons
C. ln snippets buttons
D. ln search buttons
E. cp gadget buttons
F. ln -s snippets buttons
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit is a listing of your current directory. Based on the information shown, choose the file from the
listing that is a regular file.
A. acme
B. instance
C. screen
D. door_pipe
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-876 examen   1Z0-876   certification 1Z0-876

NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory. Consider the entry repair. Choose the commands that
might have been used to create this file.
A. cp /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
B. ln /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
C. ln /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
D. mkfile 32b /export/home/jane/repair
E. ln -s /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair
F. ln -s /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit
Answer: E

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NO.20 You have a default install of Solaris 10 on your desktop system. You are user tim. Examine the
following command and output.
$ ls -l project465.odt
-rw-r--r-- 1 tim tim 394 Apr 9 15:29 project465.odt
You need to allow another user access to write the file. You do not have access to the root
account. Which command can be used to grant write access to the file?
A. chown command
B. chgrp command
C. setfacl command
D. nischown command
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-884
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Cluster 3.2 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 243 Q&As

1Z0-884 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/1Z0-884.html

NO.1 The cluster administrator is running SunCluster 3.2 on x86 machines running Solaris 10 update 3, and
needs to boot one of the x86 machines into non-cluster mode.
To which menu item does the cluster administrator add -x' using the GRUB editor?
A. kernel /platform/i86pc/multiboot
B. kernel /platform/i86pc/suserboot
C. Solaris 10 11/06 s10x_u3wos_08 X86
D. module /platform/i86pc/boot_archive
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.2 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, the mountpoints default to
"/poolname/fsname". You can change the mountpoint name to whatever you want. You want to change
the mountpoint for the filesystem myfs1 in the pool devpool to /oradb.
Which command do you use?
A. zset mount=/oradb devpool/myfs1
B. zpool setmount=/oradb poolname/fsname
C. zfs /oradb set mountpoint devpool/all
D. zfs set mountpoint=/oradb devpool/myfs1
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two Veritas Volume Manager packages need to be installed on all nodes connected to the
shared storage? (Choose two.)
A. VRTSjre
B. VRTSvlic
C. VRTSvxvm
D. VRTSobgui
E. VRTSvxman
Answer: B,C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.4 You need to remove the Veritas Volume Manager volume named nfsvol in the nfsdg disk group which
is mounted on /nfs.
Which set of commands are used to perform this procedure?
A. umount /nfs; cldg remove nfsdg -r volume nfsvol; scconf sync nfsdg
B. umount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsdg
C. unmount -g nfsdg all; vxassist -g nfsdg remove all; cldg sync nfsvol
D. unmount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsvol
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the complete list of acceptable Veritas volumes to hold your Sun Cluster 3.2 application data
on arrays of JBOD disks?
A. mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
B. simple mirrors, mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
C. concatenated subdisks, striped subsets, simple mirrors
D. striped mirrors, striped subdisks, concatenated subdisks, concatenated mirrors
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.6 You have a three-node cluster and have put one node into maintenance mode.
What do you need to do to give the node its vote back and bring it back into the cluster?
A. Re-install the node to fix the maintenance mode.
B. Reboot the node, the maintenance mode will reset automatically.
C. Remove the node from the cluster, then add it back into the cluster.
D. Add another quorum disk device before booting the node back into the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which is applicable to the Cluster Configuration Repository (CCR)?
A. The CCR is only accessed by the cluster software at boot time.
B. The CCR contains information that is critical to the operation of the cluster.
C. The CCR should be configured on shared storage so that all nodes can access it
D. To ensure consistency between the cluster nodes the CCR should be manually copied to all nodes on
a regular basis.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.8 Which commands would be used to define a third private network using switches for a two-node
cluster?
A. clintr add-privnet -s switch3 node1:bge2,node2:bge2
B. clintr add node1:bge2
C. clintr add node1:bge2
D. clintr add -s switch3 node1:bge2 node2:bge2
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.9 You need to have two failover IP addresses on separate subnets both fail over along with an
application. How do you create your IP address resources?
A. You can create a single LogicalHostname resource respresenting both IP addresses.
B. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in the same resource group
as the application resource.
C. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in two separate resource
groups. A resource group can only contain one LogicalHostname resource.
D. You must create a SharedAddress resource. Only a SharedAddress resource can refer to multiple IP
addresses.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.10 You have two adapters that you want to configure in the same IPMP group. Neither of them are yet
configured into any IPMP group. The cluster nodes are already configured.
Which tasks must you perform to configure the group?
A. You need to rerun the scinstall utility and let it create your IPMP groups for you.
B. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx files for each adapter, using the group option to place
them in the same group.
C. You need to use the clinterconnect (clintr) command and specify the adapters for which you want to
create IPMP groups.
D. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx file for only one adapter. In that file, you list all the
adapters that will be in the same group.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.11 The SUNW.HAStoragePlus resource manages different types of storage. In which case is it mandatory
to configure HAStoragePlus?
A. to manage global raw devices
B. to manage global file systems
C. to manage failover file systems
D. to manage global file system devices with an Oracle RAC configuration
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.12 You just created a Solaris Volume Manager diskset from the shared storage containing two disks, one
from each of two arrays. You added two connected nodes as mediators for the diskset.
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must manually create a partition on the diskset disks to hold a metadb replica.
B. The metainit commands that you use to build volumes on the disks will fail unless you mirror across
arrays.
C. The mediators allow you to lose a disk and subsequently maintain high availability if a node fails.
D. If you lose one of the disks and then lose the node that is primary for the diskset, the entire cluster will
lose access to the diskset.
E. The Solaris Volume Manager commands that added disks to the diskset automatically created a single
metadb replica on each disk.
Answer: C,E

certification Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884

NO.13 You have a two-node cluster configured. Node one is out of the cluster. You make changes to node two
(add resource groups and disk device groups). You now shut down node two and try to boot node one,
which fails due to amnesia prevention.
Which two keep node one from starting the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. scsi-2 reservations
B. Persistent reservations on the quorum device.
C. Nothing will keep node one from starting the cluster.
D. Node one's key has been previously preempted from the quorum device.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.14 You want to create a role that contains only the authorizations Solaris.cluster.modify and
Solaris.cluster.admin. As you then decide which users should be able to successfully access every cluster
command, you can just assign these users to the role and give them the role password.
These users will never need to have the root password, but they will be able to execute every cluster
command.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This scheme will work for both cluster commands and Sun Cluster Manager.
B. There are still some cluster-related activities, such as modifying the /etc/vfstab file, that the user might
NOT be able to do.
C. The users who switch to the role will still NOT have Solaris.cluster.read authorization, so they will not
be able to view cluster status and configuration.
D. This scheme will work as the users try to access command line commands, but it will NOT work if the
users execute operations through Sun Cluster Manager.
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.15 A system administrator has received the Java ES distribution as a two-CD set, and wishes to configure
an NFS server to use as an install server for Sun Cluster 3.2.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Mount and share each CD from a separate server.
B. This is NOT possible, only the DVD distribution can be used in this case.
C. Create a working directory, share it using NFS, and combine the contents of both CDs into it using the
cpio command.
D. Mount the first CD and share it using NFS. When prompted by the installer, unshare and unmount the
CD, and repeat the process with the second CD.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.16 Which two types of communication can occur on the private interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. cluster heartbeats
B. application data transfer
C. vxconfigd communication
D. Solaris Volume Manager communication
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1Z0-884 examen   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884

NO.17 When using ZFS to maintain your cluster file systems, what other software volume management
application do you need to manage the device groups?
A. You do not need any other volume manager software.
B. SVM is needed to manage your disksets.
C. VxVM is needed to manage your disk groups.
D. Veritas CVM is needed to manage the shared disk groups.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.18 Occasionally you may need to rebuild your cluster. If you rebuilt a cluster named "dev" without
removing the old quorum server information, you may want to clean up the old quorum server information
manually.
Which command would you use to remove the old quorum server information after using the command
clqs show to obtain the cluster name and ID?
(--- Cluster dev (id 0x448DE82F) Registrations ---)
A. clclust remove -F quorum-serv-v
B. clqs clear -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
C. scquorum -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
D. Reboot the quorum server
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.19 A customer has a resource group called nfs-rg with a SUNW.nfs resource called nfs-rs. They want to
check how the Failover_mode property has been set.
Which is the correct command used to accomplish this task ?
A. clrg status
B. clrs show -g nfs-rg
C. clrs show -v nfs-rs
D. clrs list -v nfs-rs
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884

NO.20 Solaris 10 allows resource allocation to users by assigning them projects. Consider having to
automatically assign a project to an Oracle user, to start your HA-Oracle database.
Which two options would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use the newtask command
B. Assign a project to the user using only the /etc/project file.
C. Assign a project to the user using both the /etc/project and the /etc/user_attr file.
D. Use the Resource_project_name property to pass the project to be used when starting Oracle.
Answer: C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.21 There are various ways to interact with Sun Cluster 3.2 to do daily administration.
Which method is prohibited?
A. using the clsetup command
B. editing the ccr
C. using Sun Cluster Manager
D. using standard cluster commands
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884

NO.22 Which statement is incorrect regarding the in.mpathd daemon?
A. IPMP uses ping to contact any router listed in the routing table.
B. If no router exists, IPMP submits a ping to the all-hosts multicast address.
C. If static host routes are available, these hosts will be contacted using ping.
D. You can configure link state monitoring on Solaris 9.
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.23 A customer needs to do some maintenance to an application resource in their NFS resource group.
They want to have NFS resources active, but want to be sure that if anything goes wrong during the
operation, the NFS service is NOT restarted or the resource group switched.
How can this be accomplished ?
A. The customer can suspend the resource group.
B. The customer can place the resource group into a quiescent state.
C. The customer can place the resource group offline and then enable only the required
resources.
D. The customer can keep the resource group online and then disable monitoring for all the resources.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   certification 1Z0-884

NO.24 You run cldg status to view the status of your device group. What must be true about the node that is
listed as the Primary.?
A. It is the preferred node for the device group.
B. It is the current primary node for the device group, not necessarily the preferred node.
C. A global file system configured on a volume of the device group can only be accessed from that node.
D. The device group can run only on that node. If that node fails, the device group will become
unavailable.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884 examen

NO.25 A patch has been released for a recently discovered security issue. The cluster administrator has
downloaded the patch and the README shows that it is a rebooting node patch that must be installed in
single-user mode.
What steps should be followed to apply this patch with the minimum amount of downtime for the service.
A. On each node in turn run the commands:
clnode evacuate -
n
shutdown -gO -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
B. On one node run the following commands:
clrg status
clrg offline
+
On each node in turn run the commands:
shutdown -g0 -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
When all nodes are patched run the following commands from one node:
clrg online
+
clrg status
C. Connect to all nodes using the cluster console and apply the patch simultaneously.
Reboot each node in turn.
D. On one node run the commands:
clrg status
cluster shutdown -g0
y
Reboot each node outside cluster.
boot -sx
Apply the patch on each node and reboot back into cluster.
boot
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.26 What is the minimum number of nodes required to make a highly available cluster?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.27 Which two components are part of the Sun Cluster 3.2 software stack? (Choose two.)
A. operating system
B. Sun Cluster 3.2 agents
C. Sun Cluster 3.2 framework
D. volume management software
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.28 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, how do you specify the file system
mountpoint?
A. ZFS does not use mountpoints.
B. You must define mountpoints in the /etc/vfstab file first.
C. ZFS mountpoints default to /poolname/fsname, but you can change them to whatever you want using
the zfs command
D. Sun Cluster chooses the name of the file system mountpoints for ZFS.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.29 Which are three reasons to disable automatic quorum device configuration in a two-node cluster?
(Choose three.)
A. You have a dual ported disk or LUN that is not capable of being a quorum device.
B. You want to use a second internal drive for your quorum device.
C. You want to use the quorum server as the quorum device.
D. You want to use a NAS device as a quorum device.
E. You want to use your boot device as your quorum device.
Answer: A,C,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen

NO.30 A two-node Solaris Volume Manager campus cluster has been installed at sites A and B. A preferred site
A can be configured so that the cluster survives the loss of site B without requiring manual intervention.
Which is the correct procedure to create a preferred site A ?
A. Put the quorum device at site A and configure the majority of the diskset metadb replicas on the disks
located at site A.
B. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra metadb to the disks in the diskset at both sites A and
B.
C. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra local metadb to the root disk on the server located at
site A.
D. You cannot do this unless you configure a third site with the quorum device and with
the diskset configured across all three sites, so that the loss of one site will always ensure that two out of
the three metadbs are present.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-884   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   certification 1Z0-884

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-550
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

1Z0-550 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/1Z0-550.html

NO.1 ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for
JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

Oracle   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550

NO.2 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550

NO.3 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550

NO.4 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   certification 1Z0-550

NO.5 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   1Z0-550 examen

NO.6 What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550   certification 1Z0-550

NO.7 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550 examen

NO.8 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550 examen   1Z0-550 examen

NO.9 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550

NO.10 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-574
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

1Z0-574 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/1Z0-574.html

NO.1 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-574   certification 1Z0-574   certification 1Z0-574

NO.2 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-574   1Z0-574   certification 1Z0-574   1Z0-574 examen   certification 1Z0-574

NO.3 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-574   1Z0-574   1Z0-574 examen   1Z0-574

NO.4 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-574   certification 1Z0-574   1Z0-574   1Z0-574

NO.5 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.14 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.15 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.19 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.20 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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